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Theocentricism Anonymous 04/24/2020 (Fri) 23:48:55 No.1
Immediate serious discussion, go. On school, if you suffered that, you must have heard quite a few times that humans moved from Theocentricism to anthropocentrism during the French Revolution. English is my second tongue and I'm translating what I learned in school to english, so I may be getting the terminology wrong. So my question to this board is, have you moved back to that hated Theocrentic view? If not, why?
>>1 I don't think I ever really moved away from it. If I've ever gone so far, it was only to flirt with the idea. Christians really have no business outside of a theocentric worldview. Scripture outright rejects anthropocentrism, stating that man was created to glorify Him. The Father will not judge a man's life based on his human deeds, but on man's capacity to glorify the Father, which is through the man's faith in the Son. Shifting the frame of reference from God to humanity implicitly rejects Scripture; humanity cannot be said to be the central aspect of existence in one where they are explicitly created to appease a separate entity. This opens another can of worms: how are our actions judged then? Every single person will give a slightly different answer. There must be a rule against which we are judged, but who is right? There are now a billion different truths, but you cannot accurately judge without that one objective truth against which to judge. The ideologues behind the French Revolution claimed that all of existence is centered around fallible, imperfect humans, who see only shadows on a cave wall. They wanted to suspend the concept of objective truth, not because they believed there truly is none, but so that they could replace it with a truth they saw fit. Looking up those terms, I noticed that it gets involved a lot in environmentalist rhetoric. >Anthropocentrism >Part of a series on Discrimination For Pete's sake.
>>3 How is glory defined in the religious context? Also, what is the difference between glory and vain-glory?
>>3 >The Father will not judge a man's life based on his human deeds, but on man's capacity to glorify the Father, which is through the man's faith in the Son Wait isn't this Protestant heresy?
>>8 I'm going to go for the boring answer and say it it can be but not necessarily, because words can mean a lot of things and people here aren't putting too much thought into their words.
>>8 Nope, protestants, at least those who hold to historic protestant positions and aren't just the unwashed masses of Christo-gnostic non denominationals, would reject that formulation. It honestly sounds more like an Eastern Orthodox position, although pinning down what the EO position on any topic is can be tricky since they have a more fluid understanding of theology in general than western Christendom (except on the Trinity, they are autistically Trinitarian, to their credit) A protestant take would be that God does in fact judge a mans life based on his deeds and he finds them all wanting. Only by the incarnation of the Son and the Son's propitiatory sacrifice as a substitute for man and the imputation of the Sons righteousness to that man does God find a man blameless. It is because we are in Christ that God passes his wrath over us and gives us His mercy because Christ was perfectly righteous and give himself as a ransom on our behalf. It's almost correct to say we aren't judged at all, Christ is judged and Christ being God is sinless and being Man can represent men in the court of God's law. Because we have our faith in Christ we are justified and counted among the people of God but the actual mechanism for being found to be blameless and saved from our sins is entirely in the hands of Christ and faith itself being a gift from the Holy Spirit our salvation entirely from start to finish is the work of God not in anything God has found in us apart from what He has done. What that poster said would be considered almost heretical from a protestant viewpoint. It borders on Pelagianism or at least semi-Pelagianism
>>13 But I thought human deeds and faith were required to at least hope for salvation, not just faith. Isn't Sole fide central to Protestantism? And again, what is glory versus vain-glory? >>9 That's what I thought, but I still want to make sure.
>>18 >But I thought human deeds and faith were required to at least hope for salvation, That is the traditional Roman Catholic and EO position. Historically protestants are strictly monergistic, meaning all of the work of salvation is done by God and we are recipients according to His grace and for the accomplishment of His purposes. > Isn't Sole fide central to Protestantism? It is, by Faith Alone we are justified. The natural question thereafter is what induces faith? Is it something which we exert on our own accord? Ephesians 2:8-10 tells us >8 For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith—and this is not from yourselves, it is the gift of God— > 9 not by works, so that no one can boast. >10 For we are God’s handiwork, created in Christ Jesus to do good works, which God prepared in advance for us to do. Our faith and our works both are from God, we cannot boast in and of ourselves of our own righteousness because apart from Christ we have none and indeed what righteousness we do have either in faith or in works are those which were prepared for us by God and not out of our own will. > And again, what is glory versus vain-glory? I'm not sure if you have some kind of point you're trying to make with this but by simple vernacular usage glory is honor and splendor which somebody possesses rightly and vain-glory is honor and splendor which is claimed but not earned or properly deserved.
>>20 What does it mean to say that Man was created to honor and splendor God? What does honor and splendor mean in this context?

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